What does “Son of man” Mean
BY PGF1 year, 6 months ago
God calls Ezekiel Son of man. (Chapter 2:1, 3, others. It’s capitalized for both Jesus and Ezekiel in the KJV.) I’ve often thought about this in connection with Christ’s own expression of Himself as the Son of man.
It’s a qualifying term. Ezekiel, acting as a type of Christ, is called upon by God to both prophesy and judge. There’s a typological connection with Ezekiel as a prophet to the Jews and a judge to Jesus, who is Prophet to all men and the Judge of all men.
Keeping in mind that the New Testament interprets the Old Testament, this study shines much light both on Christ and Ezekiel under the term ‘Son of man’. It would be well worth investigating Ezekiel’s role more fully, but Dr. Gentry explains for us why Christ calls Himself the Son of man.
It’s a fascinating short study with detailed Scripture references while also being expressed in a manner that even I can understand. Jesus is both fully God and fully man. He’s solely qualified to judge all men justly, not just the first-century Jews.
Though believers are accountable to God for violation of His law, it’s wonderful to know that God, in His mercy, doesn’t judge us only by His own perfect, inerrant, and holy standard. Though saved, now we cannot attain; He is the Creator; we are the creature incapable of being co-equal with God.
Jesus, being the Son of man, solves the need both for the final holy sacrifice to usher in His Kingdom and, being fully man, He’s uniquely qualified as high Preist to believers and Judge of the quick and the dead. He knows our temptations and infirmities; Christ walked a mile in our shoes, as the expression goes. “For we have not an high priest which cannot be touched with the feeling of our infirmities; but was in all points tempted like as we are, yet without sin.” – Hebrews 4:15.
Folks who may be on the fence about Jesus, refer here for a more thorough explanation, in simple-to-understand terms, of who Christ is and why you need the salvation of Holy God.
Nothing from me this Sunday. Below are a few key paragraphs from this excellent study. Have your Bible handy for reference, and do read the whole thing.
As we consider this phrase in the Gospels, we must keep three important issues in mind: (1) Jesus is the only one who ever uses this phrase. Never do his disciples, the Jews, or anyone else mention it. (2) The phrase is always used with the definite article: “the son of man” (3) In Matthew’s Gospel, Jesus himself does not even begin using it until Matt. 8:20. Each of these points is significant.
In the Gospels, we find four key predicative-expressions serving to identify who Jesus is: (1) “the son of David” (Matt. 12:23; 22:42); (2) “the Messiah” (Matt. 16:16, 20; 26:63); (3) “the Son of God” (Matt. 26:63; 27:43, 54); and (4) “the king of the Jews/Israel” (Matt. 27:11, 42). And these are often used by persons other than Jesus — even by God himself (Matt. 3:17; 17:5), Satan (Matt. 4:3, 6), and demons (Matt. 8:29).
The phrase “the son of man” is a technical term, but not a term of identification pointing out who Jesus really is. That is, we never find it mentioned as a predication, such as “he is (or is not) the son of man.” Despite modern popular opinion, it does not function as a christological title. And it is not a substitute for “Messiah.”
That key sentence was bolded by me. It’s something not previously considered.
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